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Awesome job so far everyone! Please give us your feedback on how our article efforts are going. We still need more finished articles for our May contest theme: Remake the Classics

### #Actualjapro

Posted 29 April 2012 - 04:57 AM

It works perfectly, at least on paper. Has anyone else ever used an approach like this? Or is there a better way to do it?

It's the correct way of doing it... You are essentially multiplying with (1-friction) every time step so over multiple time steps the "correction" is (1-friction)^n and not n*(1-friction) (1-n*friction) as you would get with the first version when increasing the timestep n times.

Edit: n*(1-friction) would be totally off

### #1japro

Posted 29 April 2012 - 04:28 AM

It works perfectly, at least on paper. Has anyone else ever used an approach like this? Or is there a better way to do it?

It's the correct way of doing it... You are essentially multiplying with (1-friction) every time step so over multiple time steps the "correction" is (1-friction)^n and not n*(1-friction) as you would get with the first version when increasing the timestep n times.

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