Keep in mind, however, that using the tangent only works on right triangles. It will not work for any other type of triangle. The problem with that is that you need to know the measure of one of the angles(the 90 degree one).
The law of cosines solution posted earlier is the correct one.
To review:
cos(A) = (b2 + c2 - a2)/(2bc)
Solving for A will give you the angle, no matter what type of triangle you''re dealing with.
Peace out.
Any Suggestions
quote:Original post by Wizardry
Keep in mind, however, that using the tangent only works on right triangles. It will not work for any other type of triangle. The problem with that is that you need to know the measure of one of the angles(the 90 degree one).
The law of cosines solution posted earlier is the correct one.
To review:
cos(A) = (b2 + c2 - a2)/(2bc)
Solving for A will give you the angle, no matter what type of triangle you''re dealing with.
Peace out.
Thanks Wizardy I get what you saying and I apologize to the
others who are telling me about Law of Cosine for acting
like a stupid moron.
btw the way I have another stupid moron question in which its
guareentee to make your eyes roll into the back of you skull
Topic: Cosine Inverse
How are the ratios of cosine inverse converted back into angles?
In other words how does the cosine inverse really work.
Simple answer (Where Cos-1 = inverse cosine)
Cos(X) = Y
Cos-1(Cos(X)) = Cos-1(Y)
X = Cos-1(Y)
Basically, the inverse cosine of a cosine of an angle is the angle. The opposite is true also.
If you want a deeper answer, then I can answer with many more words.
Nutts
Edited by - BeerNutts on June 29, 2001 5:26:54 PM
Cos(X) = Y
Cos-1(Cos(X)) = Cos-1(Y)
X = Cos-1(Y)
Basically, the inverse cosine of a cosine of an angle is the angle. The opposite is true also.
If you want a deeper answer, then I can answer with many more words.
Nutts
Edited by - BeerNutts on June 29, 2001 5:26:54 PM
quote:Original post by BeerNutts
Simple answer (Where Cos-1 = inverse cosine)
Cos(X) = Y
Cos-1(Cos(X)) = Cos-1(Y)
X = Cos-1(Y)
Basically, the inverse cosine of a cosine of an angle is the angle. The opposite is true also.
If you want a deeper answer, then I can answer with many more words.
Nutts
Edited by - BeerNutts on June 29, 2001 5:26:54 PM
I not very good a trig not to mention inverse trig, but what are
X and Y used for?
If you want a simple explanation, the inverse-cosine or arccosine is just the inverse of the cosine function like multiplication and division or addition and subtraction.
If you have the cosine of an angle, the inverse-cosine will give you the angle.
cos-1(cos(theta)) == theta
That''s about as complicated as it gets.
Peace out.
If you have the cosine of an angle, the inverse-cosine will give you the angle.
cos-1(cos(theta)) == theta
That''s about as complicated as it gets.
Peace out.
This topic is closed to new replies.
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