So would black privilege exist in the black community?
Is the black community the dominant culture?
Does the black community value white people less than non-white people?
I'm confused. If not North America then where?
I was thinking of Europe, with its mishmash of ethnic groups, many of which have fair skin, and the myriad ethnic conflicts that exist there.
Yes, but don't you see that white people oppressing other white people obviates the notion of white privilege and requires us to invent the idea that it only started happening after the 1940s?
No, that's a fallacious argument. Again: privilege is not a binary concept, it's a relative one. It's possible to be white, oppressed by other white people, and still be more privileged than someone who isn't white.
And why would only coming into effect after the 1940s obviate the concept? We're talking about today. If some groups started being more privileged than others after a certain time, it makes sense to refer to them as such after that time?