Complex numbers

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32 comments, last by quasar3d 21 years, 2 months ago
Why imaginary and complex numbers are magical...

A bit of physics: When you stretch a spring, the force the spring is exerting on you is proportional (negatively) to the distance it''s stretched (or compressed); in other words, it''s proportional to its displacement. But wait! Acceleration is proportional to the force applied, so it''s also proportional to displacement... and acceleration is just the second derivative of displacement! So something''s value is proportional to it''s second derivative! Agh! It''s circular (pun very much intended )!

So now, look at this function: f(x) = eix

It''s first derivative: f''(x) = ieix
It''s second derivative: f''''(x) = -eix

Notice that f''''(x) = -f(x), EXACTLY how displacement and acceleration are related to each other in a spring!

So now, if you were to graph the real part of f(x), you''d get a surprise: It''d be a sine wave! Of course, that makes sense; springs oscillate sinusoidally. But here we have a beautiful relationship that links linear motion proportional to the rate of change of its rate of change to circular motion.

Pretty crazy, eh?
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This is true for a frictionless spring. The force applied by the spring is F = -kx where k is a constant and x is the displacement. By writing Newton''s law of dynamics on the x axis, m a = F which means mx'''' = -kx, ie

x'''' + (k/m) x = 0

This differential equation is solved like this: first, analyze the associated equation : r² + (k/m) = 0 whose solutions are

r1 = i * sqrt(k/m)
r2 = - i * sqrt(k/m)

Maths tell us that solutions are of the form x = A * exp(r1 * t) + B * exp(r2 * t), where A and B are constants. Which means that if A = 1 and B = 0, then x = exp(r1 * t) will be a solution. Which is why it works.

And this is why each time we see x'''' + w²x = 0 we write x = X cos(wt + phi)...



There are even more magical things in maths... For instance, consider a sequence Un = card { (a,b) in Z² | a² + b² <= n }
What does Un / n tend towards when n teds towards infinity?
Try it out, you''ll be surprised :-)

And if you takle 2 random positive integers, the chance of their gcd being 1 is equal to pi² / 6 (don''t remember how to prove that, though).





ToohrVyk
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2 things (I''ve mostly missed the boat though ):

1)
i*i = j*j = k*k = ijk = -1

This equation has no solutions if you restrict yourself to using complex numbers. (However it is part of the definition for quaternions)

2)
There was a time when x = 4 - 5 had no solution. Then someone decided that negative numbers would fix it. Then there was a time when 4 * x = 5 had no solution, so someone decided that fractional numbers would fix it. Then there was a time when x * x = 2 had no solution, so someone decided that irrational numbers would fix it. Then there was a time when x * x = -1 had no solution, so someone decided that complex numbers would fix it. Complex numbers are just an extension of the numbering system, but we generally find it a bit hard to start with because you can''t imagine what an imaginary number looks like - all the other numbers have been 1 dimensional, and now this is 2 dimensional.

I''m not sure how useful this would be, but the idea that an irrational number could be thought of as 2 dimensional is possible:

a + b * n where n = Sqr(3)

It wouldn''t have all the nice properties of having n*n = -1, but it is still a nice analogue.

Trying is the first step towards failure.
Trying is the first step towards failure.
Thanks for all the replies. I understand pretty much of it now, and my interests are peaking, so I think i''ll soon understand the parts I don''t get yet aswell.

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