Do you know why English language is superior to Spanish?

Started by
67 comments, last by nilkn 12 years, 11 months ago
YEAH I JUST MOVED TO SPAIN AND I HAVE NO CLUE WHAT THE HECK EVERBODY IS SAYING TO ME EVERYWHERE ALL THE TIME SO CLEARLY IT IS INFERIOR AND THEN LIKE HALF THE TIME IT'S NOT EVEN CASTELLANO AND HOW AM I SUPPOSED TO SEE THE DIFFERENCE THIS IS INSANE BUT THE FOOD IS GREAT AND THE GIRLS ARE PRETTY SO YAY
Advertisement

YEAH I JUST MOVED TO SPAIN AND I HAVE NO CLUE WHAT THE HECK EVERBODY IS SAYING TO ME EVERYWHERE ALL THE TIME SO CLEARLY IT IS INFERIOR AND THEN LIKE HALF THE TIME IT'S NOT EVEN CASTELLANO AND HOW AM I SUPPOSED TO SEE THE DIFFERENCE THIS IS INSANE BUT THE FOOD IS GREAT AND THE GIRLS ARE PRETTY SO YAY


The Spanish people are looking at you strangely because you go around screaming for no reason, not because you don't speak the language.

Well that's on the way out, and quickly, and soon everyone will be signing up for Mandarin and you'll only hear English at your local Beijing McDonalds.


I've heard that argument before and I can't believe anyone subscribes to the idea that Mandarin would ever be a global language. Only about 1/6 of the world speaks Mandarin, why would the other 5/6 learn a language that is radically different from their own? Chinese is not an easy language to learn. I know a few handfuls of people that moved to China for work. After almost 2 years, only ONE person from that group knows anything more than basic chinese. His chinese is extremely limited, and that is with lots of study and daily interaction with native speakers.

Chinese requires not just the relearning of vocabulary and grammar rules, but correct pronunciation as words take on completely different meanings with different emphasis on syllables. In addition, the writing system is archaic and not conducive to technological advances at all. Considering most skilled chinese workers know english or german or french already, it makes much more sense that those languages would be a world standard.

I've heard that argument before and I can't believe anyone subscribes to the idea that Mandarin would ever be a global language. Only about 1/6 of the world speaks Mandarin, why would the other 5/6 learn a language that is radically different from their own? Chinese is not an easy language to learn. I know a few handfuls of people that moved to China for work. After almost 2 years, only ONE person from that group knows anything more than basic chinese. His chinese is extremely limited, and that is with lots of study and daily interaction with native speakers.

Chinese requires not just the relearning of vocabulary and grammar rules, but correct pronunciation as words take on completely different meanings with different emphasis on syllables. In addition, the writing system is archaic and not conducive to technological advances at all. Considering most skilled chinese workers know english or german or french already, it makes much more sense that those languages would be a world standard.

I don't know if you've been paying attention, but we now have a global economy and it's only getting more and more global. Do you realize there are other countries from your own? In fact, get this, there are non-western countries! yeah, crazy, I know.
Chinese requires not just the relearning of vocabulary and grammar rules, but correct pronunciation as words take on completely different meanings with different emphasis on syllables[/quote]
You do realize that asian people all over the world have been learning English, simply because it was the lingua franca of business, largely because of the US's dominance (as well as that of the British in the past). Are you so naive (or blind) to assume that that will always be the case? How do you know that in 50 years China won't be vastly ahead of the US economically?

You don't, you simply assume because you've been conditioned to assume that US dominance was immutable. It's that kind of hubris (or ignorance, if you happen to not be from the US) that is as we speak causing our decline.

It was the case not that long ago that all european intellectual discourse was conducted in Latin. Do you not realize that things change?

I'll give you some empirical evidence. I have lots of family in Costa Rica and used to live there. In the past it was the case that any student who could afford to would learn English, whether it was to get a job in tourism or in business. Then the People's Republic of China built a very large bridge in Costa Rica, in an effort to foster stronger foreign relations, and (perhaps as a result or perhaps because of other efforts) there is now a lot more Chinese business in Costa Rica. Guess what happened? Costa Rican students (my cousins included) are now learning Mandarin.

Will it be any time soon that average people in the US are learning Mandarin just to get along in the global economy? No. Will it happen sooner in other countries? Yes, it already is. Will it eventually happen in the US? Depends on how whether our foreign and domestic policies continue to drive us back into the middle ages while others flourish.

But your hubris won't help the situation.

[font="arial, verdana, tahoma, sans-serif"][quote name='Khaiy' timestamp='1307899146' post='4822444']
Also, Spanish has a wierd construction with blame for events. If you drop some plates, the sentence is something like "The plates dropped themselves to me". It's not the only way to construct that meaning, and it does have situations where it's specifically not used, but it's odd to me to have such an anthropomorphised form at any time. That's kind of a finnicky complaint though.


It's not about blame, it's about intention. Accidental events can seem rather weird to non-native speakers. The key, however, is that the rules regarding accidental reflexive construction are clear and consistent. It may "seem weird" to you as a non-native speaker, but that's always the case when learning a new language. That shouldn't be the bar by which the "goodness" of a language is measured.

The rule is, as I said, clear and consistent. It also conveys more information that the English equivalent. If I say "I dropped the plates" a listener needs to inquire further to find out whether I dropped them on purpose or whether it was a mistake. This is immediately clear in Spanish.

In the case that information about intention is unknown one can resort to the passive "The plates fell".

And, by the way, there's no anthropomorphizing, I don't know where you got it. The construction is more like: "The plates fell from me."[/font]
"Los platos se me cayeron" == they fell from me
"Los platos se cayeron" == they fell

It's not very complicated.
[/quote]

I never said it was complicated, nor that the rule was inconsistent or inconsistently applied, just that that particular construction is strange. That there are two entirely separate constructions of the statement to differentiate does not make either sentence clearer without pre-existing understanding of that arbitrary differentiation. Which is fine to a native speaker no doubt, but the same can be said of most of the complaints people make regarding English.

The "rules", such as they are, are quite clear when "wind' would be pronounced which way. If you're speaking, it doesn't come up at all. When you're reading or writing, context will only allow one or the other, and the phonetics of it are irrelevant. If you are reading it in a sentence it will be confusing but only if you don't know the other word (which it is, despite having a spelling in common). But this is not much improved by requiring the reader to learn a different word which also has a different spelling.

When an identical spelling encompasses multiple parts of speech this is an issue, though if someone finds it offensive enough there are plenty of other words which will serve that purpose which do not do so.

You aren't going to hear me defending English as easier to learn or more sensibly arranged than another language. For every example one could show where Spanish has something strange to learn (say, a reflexive verb carrying a different meaning from the same, non-reflexive verb), there are at least several complaints to be made about some arbitrary English issue. English took the worst parts of Germanic languages and then picked up the worst parts of Latin and then, perhaps in response to these poor developments, became linguistically promiscuous.

But of the most common complaints people make of English, most don't have much functional significance. There are a ton of poor spellers, native speakers and otherwise, who write the wrong word in the wrong place. Lots of people pronounce words poorly, even taking region into account. While there are people who will look down on these, there are few who can't understand the intended meaning quite quickly. Indeed, there is little regard for the rules of English in general on these issues, precisely because they are strange and easily broken without much issue.

The benefits of English are the large vocabulary and the lack of irrelevant information (like gender) inherent to words themselves. Neither of these will be much use to the English learner or merely functional English speaker. Whether or not they compensate for English's inadequacies, or how much ease of learning for non-native speakers counts in comparing languages, I can't say. But complaints that it's hard to master a rule that no one cares about in the first place rings a little hollow.

-------R.I.P.-------

Selective Quote

~Too Late - Too Soon~


[color="#1C2837"]Spanish is flooded with emotional connotations that while enriching the language they add (to me unnecessary) noise to the information

Can you give any evidence of this? As a fluent speaker of both English and Spanish (with Spanish being my first language), I can tell you that it's completely untrue. You seem to be talking about the difference between usted/tu. Are there any other "emotional connotations" you would like to point out (whatever "emotional connotation" might mean), or are you simply stating that Spanish is "flooded" with them without even knowing what you're talking about?[/quote]


Muy bien! :)

Se me va a poner feo justificar eso. Talvez hasta no pueda. Pero a ver... El español o mejor dicho la lengua española (ó el idioma castellano) a variado un tanto o bastante con el paso del tiempo en los lugares en donde se a adoptado como lenguage principal. Yo he compartido la mesa con Españoles, Chilenos, Peruanos, Colombianos, Dominicanos, Paraguayos, Mejicanos y otros tantos y te digo que si no son capaces de hablar español neutro se hace tremendamente difícil entender lo que dicen. Sin tener en cuenta los diversos giros idiomáticos, las pronunciaciones, acentuaciones y tonalidades varían tanto que a veces parecen directamente otro lenguaje. Si a eso le agregás los giros idiomáticos se convierte directamente en otro idioma.
¿Cómo es que esto no pasa, ó no tan extremadamente, con el inglés? Los lugares geográficos donde se habla inglés están relativamente dispersos, sin embargo, en mi opinión, el idioma no ha variado tanto en los diversos lugares como lo hizo el español. Por lo tanto deduzco que debe haber una diferencia importante entre el español y el inglés. Por lo menos en ese respecto.

Pero ¿Dónde radica esta diferencia si existiera? Vos me decís que el idioma inglés tiene montones de excepciones, yo te digo andá a enseñarle a un norteamericano que sustantivos son femeninos y cuales otros son masculinos. ¿Dónde cuerno está la regla para eso? ¿La mar? ¿El Mar? ¿La sal? ¿El agua? ¿Las aguas? ¿El azúcar? ¿Los azúcares? Hay que aprenderse toda esa mierda de memoria desde que uno es joven, y aún así veo que muchos hispano parlantes nativos nunca llegan a hablarlo a la perfección. Ni mencionemos la ortografía. Hay que tener una memoria del diablo para hablarlo correctamente y sentirse a gusto haciéndolo y escuchándolo. Y ahi es donde entra mi comentario sobre las connotaciones emocionales, lo que quizá talvez no sea el término correcto para describirlo, me hago cargo.

Lo que quise decir es que existen tantas variaciones del español y cada una está tan llena de costumbrismos locales que hacen referencia a pautas culturales de la sociedad que lo utiliza, es decir, cuestiones de identidad, que cuando dos hispano parlantes de distintos lugares se juntan a conversar, cada uno en su dialecto respectivo, la comunicación se vuelve tediosa y yo mismo he visto que en la mayoría de los casos hasta genera resquemor y resentimiento.

Yo se que, por ejemplo, el acento de los australianos y los irlandeses es diferente, pero no me parece que llegue al extremo de que sean incapaces de entenderse. ¿Escucháste alguna vez a dos dominicanas hablando entre ellas? ¿Ó a dos paraguayas? No se entiende nada man.

En fin, no la quiero hacer muy larga. Yo sostengo que el inglés es más práctico y no tiende a disgregarse.

EDICIÓN: Simplifiqué la conclusión.
[size="2"]I like the Walrus best.

[quote name='A Brain in a Vat' timestamp='1307995295' post='4822897']
Well that's on the way out, and quickly, and soon everyone will be signing up for Mandarin and you'll only hear English at your local Beijing McDonalds.


I've heard that argument before and I can't believe anyone subscribes to the idea that Mandarin would ever be a global language. Only about 1/6 of the world speaks Mandarin, why would the other 5/6 learn a language that is radically different from their own? Chinese is not an easy language to learn. I know a few handfuls of people that moved to China for work. After almost 2 years, only ONE person from that group knows anything more than basic chinese. His chinese is extremely limited, and that is with lots of study and daily interaction with native speakers.

Chinese requires not just the relearning of vocabulary and grammar rules, but correct pronunciation as words take on completely different meanings with different emphasis on syllables. In addition, the writing system is archaic and not conducive to technological advances at all. Considering most skilled chinese workers know english or german or french already, it makes much more sense that those languages would be a world standard.
[/quote]

As was mentioned above, English isn't popular because it's easy to learn or because over 1/6 of the world's population already spoke it, but because it was forced on many due to colonial or economic pressure. There's no particular reason that the pressure couldn't favor another language in the future. Certainly it will become beneficial to be able to speak Mandarin or Cantonese as China becomes more economically significant, though I doubt it would be required any more than English is required as a global language today. You can also write out a language in Roman characters-- it's called Pinyin.

I think that we're going to see much less dominance of any "pure" language anyhow. Communication is no longer limited by distance at all. And the age of the far-reaching colonial empire is over, as is the age of the single global superpower. If there will ever be a global language, or anything approaching one, I would bet on a pidgin rather than just expanding an existing language.

-------R.I.P.-------

Selective Quote

~Too Late - Too Soon~


I think that we're going to see much less dominance of any "pure" language anyhow. Communication is no longer limited by distance at all. And the age of the far-reaching colonial empire is over, as is the age of the single global superpower. If there will ever be a global language, or anything approaching one, I would bet on a pidgin rather than just expanding an existing language.


Eventually, technology will be capable of translating from to any language flawlessly. At that point nobody will ever need to learn another language again. If someone does, it will be just for the pleasure of it.
[size="2"]I like the Walrus best.
As for two different ways of saying 'the', I assume you mean 'thee' and 'the', and if so I think it's down to dialect. I have never said 'thee' except when reading 'Olde Worlde' English...


The choice between "the (with schwa)" and "the (with long 'e')" is like the choice between "a" and "an" - the choice is determined by the initial sound of the following word, with the first option for words starting with consonant sounds, and the second for those starting with vowel sounds. I specify "sounds", because in English the long "u" starts with a palatal approximant, which is classed as a consonant - thus words like "uterus" use the consonant version of the articles, not the vowel version.

(Also, "the" actually has a third variant, used only before words starting with a long "e" sound - in this case, "the" ends with a glottal stop.)


A person yelling "Fuck you" in a crowd in English. As you say, no one knows exactly who is being spoken to. This is because of ambiguity, something that English is full of. It's completely ambiguous who the object is, or even whether the object is plural or singular. How can you state that this "communicates an idea simpler and quicker than in Spanish"? In Spanish you instantly know, at least, that the person is talking to (for example) one person instead of a group of people. That is more information because of less ambiguity. In my book Spanish wins.


Every language has ambiguity - and every language has means to clarify that ambiguity when needed. For example, nouns in Japanese are ambiguous in regards to number and definiteness - "hon", for example, can refer to a book, a specific book, several books, a specific collection of books, or books in general - verbs are not inflected for person or number, and pronouns are optional; even a simple, ordinary statement like "hon o yomimasu" (literally "book read") is utterly indecipherable when taken out of context. But there are many ways to clarify if needed: "anata-tachi wa takusan hon o yomimasu" "you (plural) read many books", "ashita kanojo wa kono hon o yomimasu" "tomorrow she will this book", "watashi wa ano kawabyoushi no hon o yomimasu" "I'm reading that leather-bound book over there".

The thing is, oftentimes these ambiguities aren't even important to resolve - they only seem that way because we're used to having to make those distinctions. For example, you notice the ambiguity of "you" far more than a native English-speaker does, because you're coming from a language where making the distinction between singular-you and plural-you is obligatory. That ambiguous Japanese sentence above, "hon o yomimasu", is absolutely unambiguous about one thing, that neither of us would even think to notice because it's not a grammatical feature in English or Spanish: the relative status of the speaker and the listener. There are languages that distinguish between inclusive-we (first-person plural, including the listener) and exclusive-we (first-person plural, does not include the listener) - to people who grow up speaking those languages, "we" and "nosotros" are ambiguous in ways we can't even imagine.

The rule is, as I said, clear and consistent. It also conveys more information that the English equivalent. If I say "I dropped the plates" a listener needs to inquire further to find out whether I dropped them on purpose or whether it was a mistake. This is immediately clear in Spanish.[/quote]

Which seems perfectly natural to you, because your first language obligated you to make that clear. To an English speaker, who's language does not force him to make that distinction, it doesn't seem important - and if we feel it is, we always have the option of saying "I accidentally dropped the plates" or "I deliberately dropped the plates" (or even "I threw the plates to the ground"), while still being able to say merely "I dropped the plates" if we feel that the plates' having been dropped is more important than whether or not it was an accident. That's the benefit of ambiguity like this - it gives you the option of omitting unimportant or irrelevant information.

Just like the distinction between definite and indefinite as exemplified by the/el versus a/un seems perfectly natural to us, but seems totally unnecessary to a Russian (since Russian has no articles, definite or indefinite), who would also be amused at our insistence on using the copula (be/ser) in sentences like "I am a student" "Soy un estudiante" when he can simply say "? ???????" (literally, "me student").

Spanish is also a somewhat strict language as far as its rules go. For example, every vowel in Spanish has one sound. It is always pronounced that way, and once you learn how to pronounce it you always know how to pronounce it. If you look at a word written in Spanish, and if you know a few rules, you immediately know exactly how to pronounce that word. There are very few exceptions to any rule. English, on the other hand, is flooded (to use your terminology) with exceptions to absolutely every single rule. [/quote]

Spanish spelling is relatively young, focused on a single dialect (Spanish spelling is based fundamentally on Castillian pronunciation), and uses an writing system derived from a language - Latin - that Spanish is itself descended from. English spelling, on the other hand, is about a century and a half older, incorporates spellings from a wide variety of disparate dialects, developed in a time during which the English language was changing significantly, and uses a writing system derived from a language - again, Latin - with a very different phonology.

Spanish has 20 consonant and 5 vowel phonemes, which works quite well with an alphabet of 26 characters, with most of those characters retaining the same pronunciation they had in Latin. That same alphabet is not as good a fit with English's 24 consonant and 14 vowel phonemes.

Think about the way you pronounce the following words: thought, enough, though, cough, bough. Each one is a different pronunciation of the "ough" pattern. How the hell do you teach that to someone?[/quote]

There are relatively few words with the "-ough-" sequence - it's not that much to simply memorize the more important ones.

500 years ago, all those "-ough-"s were pronounced the same. Subsequent language evolution has caused them to diverge - and the spellings are gradually being replaced as a result. "Hiccough" and "hough" have been replaced by the now-standard "hiccup" and "hock"; "plow" and "draft" are already standard in North America, and "naught" is now standard in the US; and "thru" and "tho" are now acceptable in informal American English.

Language changes readily, but orthography does not

How about.. if someone says "bite", do you spell it "bite", "byte", or "bight"? How do you know? Seen, scene, feet, feat, etc.[/quote]

Those examples, at least, are easy to determine from context.

What about silent letters? How do you know how to pronouce "gnaw" if you see it? If you hear it, how do you know how to spell it?

Fact is that English is one of the hardest languages to learn in the world. That's because it's an unstructured mishmash of languages from vastly different etymological lines. What makes it the "best language in the world?" Nothing, the reason everyone learns it is that the English colonization effort was very widespread and successful, and after that there was the rise of the USA as the dominant superpower. Well that's on the way out, and quickly, and soon everyone will be signing up for Mandarin and you'll only hear English at your local Beijing McDonalds.
[/quote]

Correction: English is one of the harder languages to learn to read and write. Learning to speak and understand it is no harder, and possibly even easier, than most other languages - it has a relatively large number of phonemes (but by no means the largest), has a lot of consonant clusters (which are forbidden in most languages; though again, nothing approaching the monstrous consonant clusters of a language like Georgian), and makes finer tense/aspect distinctions than many other languages, but on the other hand, nouns and verbs have very few forms (roughly four each, with the notable exception of "be"), the overwhelming majority of verbs and nouns are perfectly regular with only a single inflection pardigm for each, most irregulars are only irregular in one or two forms, adjectives are not inflected at all, there's no grammatical gender except for third-person singular pronouns, there are no tones, there are relatively few exotic phonemes (it does have an abnormally large inventory of fricatives, but no retroflexes, no clicks, no ejectives or implosives, no laryngeals, no vowels that are only distinguished by lip-rounding), there are no complex consonant mutations (like in the Celtic languages), there are no grammaticalized evidential markers (like in many Amerind languages) or respect/status markers (like in Japanese), and there are relatively few person/number distinctions.

As far as Mandarin becoming the global lingua franca, suffice it to say that, like all Chinese languages, it's tonal. Tones are almost impossible to acquire for people who did not grow up speaking a tonal language - which is most people. And Mandarin is even harder to learn to read and write than English is. An inventory of several thousand characters, with well over a thousand needed for basic literacy, with the phonemic content of each character based on pronunciations that are 2000 years out of date, with many compounds being unpredictable or downright opaque, and with simplification having obscured the phonetic and semantic components of many characters. ('telephone' = ? 'electricity' + ? 'talk', not ? 'far' + ? 'talk' like a European would expect; ? 'electricity' + ?'wheel' = 'streetcar', not 'train', as the cognate compound in Japanese can also mean, and certainly not 'electric car', which is ??? 'electricity' + 'move' + 'wheel'. ? is the simplified version of ?, which is composed of semantic ? 'rain' and phonetic ? /shen/ i.e. rhymes with /shen/ and has to do with rain i.e. /dian/ 'lightning' - 2000 years of language evolution having blunted the rhyme - while the simplified version is just ? /tian/ 'field' with one stroke lengthened. And absolutely none of this helps you when writing.)
Well, I'm not a linguist, but I see two things:
1. English has very short words, so it's concise, and that's a big advantage. (the same can be expressed with fewer "letters")
2. Grammar is stupid, and that disadvantage outweighs the said advantage IMHO (the same can be expressed with more words and more arbitrary/strict structures). I think you have to master the grammar to be able to precisely express yourself. While in Finnish for example (that's another one I speak a bit) if you learn the grammar so that you can speak the language at all, that means you can express relatively complex stuff almost instantly (with a few months of learning, I was able to express stuff with a few words that I cannot express in English (only with paraphrasing it)).

Well, that's just the learning curve of the languages that are different I guess. After all (and years of learning..) English is just as good as more "complex" (more grammar cases) languages.


I like English, but I wold be sad if other languages (such as my native) would die off.

[size="1"]Just some random thoughts and theories:
[size="1"]
In English, you have to keep the context in mind to encode/decode speaking. The word order is just like that, [size="1"] plus [size="1"]the fact that nouns and other things have the same form ("turn", what's that? verb? Noun? or what). The stupid swapped word order of addressing things (names, addresses, dates, etc). All these require to keep the context in mind to parse English. In Hungarian for example the names/dates/addresses are "reversed". Just like in a phonebook. That means, you can encode Hungarian (not just addressing, but almost any sentences) word after word and fully understand stuff in a more intuitive way (you need fewer "registers"), just like in science: from general to specific. In English, it's all upside down. The specifics are on the front, but you have no idea about the context yet, because that comes after the specifics....
IMHO.

EDIT: Fixing grammar errors....

This topic is closed to new replies.

Advertisement