Quote:Original post by Polymorphic OOPQuote:Original post by Jolle
blablabla
That's not a true at all. Once a function is declared virtual in the base A, it is ALWAYS virtual whether you explicitly write virtual in child classes or not. It's entirely up to you whether or not to write virtual in B or C. The outcome is exactly the same.
Yeah, a quick check shows that you're correct... now I'll have to hunt down and burn whatever source that taught me that in the first place ;)
Sorry for lying to you bobster :/